• From: "Clark C. Evans" <cce@c...>
• To: ramesh@e...
• Date: Wed, 11 Oct 2000 17:45:28 -0400 (EDT)

> If both <B> and <C> are equivalent to <A> (for substitution), 
> then are they also equivalent to each other? In other words, 
> can <B> be substituted anywhere <C> may occur (without using xsi:type)?

  Transitivity (of substitution):  If A is substitutable for 
  B and if B is substitutable for C, then A is substitutable 
  for C.  In other words, A > B and B > C implies A > C.  

  In your example, you have  B > A  and C > A.  
  This does not imply that  B > C or that C > B.

• Follow-Ups:
  • Re: Schema Substitutability Is Transitive?
    • From: Ramesh Gupta <ramesh@e...>

• References:
  • Re: Is Schema Equivalence transitive?
    • From: ht@c... (Henry S. Thompson)

• Prev by Date: RE: XML Schemas: Best Practices
• Next by Date: Re: Schema Substitutability Is Transitive?
• Previous by thread: Re: Is Schema Equivalence transitive?
• Next by thread: Re: Schema Substitutability Is Transitive?
• Index(es):
  • Date
  • Thread