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Ramesh Gupta <ramesh@e...> writes:
> If both <B> and <C> are equivalent to <A> (for substitution), then are they
> also equivalent to each other? In other words, can <B> be substituted
> anywhere <C> may occur (without using xsi:type)?
No. Either for <A>, nothing else is possible.
ht
--
Henry S. Thompson, HCRC Language Technology Group, University of Edinburgh
W3C Fellow 1999--2001, part-time member of W3C Team
2 Buccleuch Place, Edinburgh EH8 9LW, SCOTLAND -- (44) 131 650-4440
Fax: (44) 131 650-4587, e-mail: ht@c...
URL: http://www.ltg.ed.ac.uk/~ht/
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