Subject: Re: question about generate-id()
From: Dave Pawson <davep@xxxxxxxxxxxxx>
Date: Sat, 7 Aug 2010 07:16:44 +0100
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On Fri, 06 Aug 2010 12:29:42 -0400
"G. Ken Holman" <gkholman@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx> wrote:
> I don't follow your argument, Dave. An input document's identifiers
> have *no* relationship to generate-id().
Lets agree to differ on that one then Ken.
>
> Consider this: if your reasoning that generate-id() must produce a
> value set exclusive of the xml:id values to ensure that id values in
> the output are unique,
No, I haven't said that.
this falls apart when you consider that the
> aggregation of two documents where each are independently (and
> validly) using the same value for xml:id=.
Agreed. I won't go into how. I'm suggesting that amongst the present
xml:id values in the input document, the generated id values must
be as defined, i.e. unique.
> However, if you follow my rule of thumb that *every* xml:id= or id=
> or ID-typed attribute named prod= (for example) is translated to
> output using the generate-id() for that node ... and every reference
> to those identifiers is replaced with the generated identifier for
> the referenced node, then the references will be both preserved and
> unambiguous in the result.
which is a lot of work. Fine if you want to do it.
>
> As to the earlier comment contributed regarding pointers from outside
> of the document to inside the document,
oo scope IMHO
>
> Therefore, generate-id() is necessarily independent of any knowledge
> of any content.
In which case it's badly named Ken. Quite unlike James?
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regards
--
Dave Pawson
XSLT XSL-FO FAQ.
http://www.dpawson.co.uk
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