I'm not sure if I understand the logic you want here, however. Is the second doe99 an ibid even though it's in a footnote?

Yes; at least in my system ;-)

I just didn't want you to assume the same parent node. In a footnote style, the p/citation gets translated into a footnote representation anyway.

Why is the third doe99 not an ibid, or if it is, is it by virtue of "directly following" the first doe99 or the second?

Because ibid is only for single-reference citations. The third has two. Idem. covers the case of multi-references that are the same.

Cheers,
Wendell

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Wendell Piez                            mailto:wapiez@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx
Mulberry Technologies, Inc.                http://www.mulberrytech.com
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