The answer is almost guaranteed to be yes, this
is doable. And some of the more accomplished 
members of the list may give you a quick answer, 
but I'm at least somewhat confused by what you think 
this means: 

> If x in (R1, R2, R3, R5) and y = (R6) then

* does x in (R1, R2, R3, R5) mean that *every* 
  answer chosen for question 1 is one of these 
  four values? 

  Or does it simply mean that at least one of these
  answers was chosen from question 1? 

* does y = R6 mean that only one answer was chosen 
  for question 2 and that value is R6? or that 
  R6 was at least 1 of the answers chosen for 
  question 2? 

The reason I ask is that the syntax you use to 
express those two concepts is different, especially 
for node sets (which your answers probably would be). 

Sara Mitchell


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