• From: Dave Pawson <davep@d...>
• To: xml-dev@l... <xml-dev@l...>
• Date: Fri, 24 Dec 2010 15:53:52 +0000

Given a schema definition
<define name="para">
<element name="para">
  <attribute name="xml:id"/>
  <ref name='inlines'/>
</element>
</define>


and an instance of
<para xml:id='abc'>text</para>

Would this convince xml applications
to treat this as an id... without the uxml schema for the instance?
I'm wondering how grey the area is between uxml and xml 1.0?



-- 

regards 

-- 
Dave Pawson
XSLT XSL-FO FAQ.
http://www.dpawson.co.uk